Oh dear. I hadn't realized the moron from alt.moron had pathetically
attempted to paraphrase me, since I have him on my not-worth-bothering-with
list.

Galilean Transforms.
mapping from K to k
	x' = x-vt,
	t' = t.

Mapping k -> K
	x = x'+vt,
	t = t'.

Also we can change direction by letting u = -v.

mapping K to k
	x' = x-ut,
	t' = t.

Mapping k-> K
	x = x'+ut,
	t = t'.
Thus I observe the Galilean Transforms to be symmetric.


Now what is the idiot claiming, he can OBSERVE the Lorentz Transforms
are SYMMETRIC?
Let's see.

mapping from K to k
	x' = (x-vt) / sqrt(1-v^2/c^2)
	t' = (t-vx/c^2) / sqrt(1-v^2/c^2)

mapping from k to K,
	x = [ x' *  sqrt(1-v^2/c^2)] + vt.
	t = [ t' *  sqrt(1-v^2/c^2)] + vx/c^2

This is what Bile calls symmetric?

 See also

https://home.deds.nl/~dvdm/dirk/Physics/Fumbles/SetSolve2.html