On Oct 7, 5:32 pm, PD <TheDraperFam...@gmail.com> wrote:
> On Oct 7, 2:00 pm, strich.9...@gmail.com wrote:
> 
>> Ladies and Gentlemen:
> 
>> In the M frame, the M clock ticks, and ONE SECOND later it tocks.
> 
>> In the E frame, that same tock would appear to have occurred MORE THAN
>> ONE SECOND later.
> 
> Not "appear to have". Just "have".
> 
> 
> 
>> NO time dilation OCCURS in M. (This only occurs in E).
> 
> Well, that's not correct. No time dilation for clock M occurs in M.
> This does not mean that no time dilation occurs at all. The time
> between the tick and the tock on clock E takes more time in frame M
> than it does in frame E. So certainly some sort of time dilation
> happens in M. (In fact, exactly the same kind of time dilation that
> occurs in E.)
> 
> Now, I can imagine you asking how it is that time dilation occurs in M
> (looking at the time between the tick and the tock on clock E, in
> frame M) but the clock M in frame M still shows one second between
> tick and tock. Shouldn't (you ask) the time dilation in M affect both
> clocks seen in M? Answer: Why, no, not at all.
> 
>> __________________________
>> The relativists may try to twist this simple conclusion in different
>> directions, but the SIMPLE FACT is, the clock in M NEVER slows down.
> 
> It's really very simple. I don't know what you find difficult about it
> at all.
> 
> PD

It is now time to demolish the premise of special relativity.

Let us review the problem:

1) Clocks E and M in inertial frames E and M are at rest with respect
to one another. Clock rates are of course equal.  Let frame M with
clock M now move with respect to E, with relative constant
velocity v.

2) The rate of clock M in frame M does not change.  Everybody has
agreed on this one.

3) The rate of clock E in frame E does not change.  Nothing has
happened to frame E, it did not move at fall, so its rate does not
change.

4) Since clocks M and E were initially of the same rate, and after M
moves, the rate of neither clock changed, so the clock rates are still
the SAME.

5) There is no time dilation at all, whether in M, or in E.  How can
an apparent or an actual time dilation occur, when the clocks were in
synch, and still are in synch?

6) The above is generalizable to all bodies in relative motion.  Time
dilation does not occur and the speed of light must not be constant.

Thank you all for your time.

[ reply: http://groups.google.com/group/sci.physics.relativity/msg/e6df3b52be1e7860 ]